So, just how ambiguous do pronouns have to be in order for it to be considered wrong? The strategy guide seems to be very inconsistent on this issue.
For example...on page 92, the explanation for # 9 of the pronoun chapter seems to regard an ambiguous pronoun as correct, justified by really arbitrary reasons.
#9 page 92, answer explanation
We finally chose the coffee tabk towards the back of the store, because we thought it would complememt our living room furniture.
We is a pronoun that never has an antecedent in the semence, because we is a first person (we refers
to the people speaking). - makes sense
Table is the amecedent of it. (Why is store not the antecedent? Table is a more "attractive"
antecedent for it because: (1) table and it are in the same case (objective), and have similar rolf;,S in
the sentence: both are the objects of verbs (chose, thought) of which we is the subject, and (2) store is
in a particularly unattractive place for an antecedent is buried inside a prepositional phrase
(towards the back ofthe store). - does not make sense to me. I dont understand how this justify that the pronoun "it" is not ambiguous. It is worst because table and store are both parallel (both objects), so how is the reader suppose to know what it refers to? Is there some rule that I am not getting?
The original sentence is incorrect because the pronoun which refers to store. Store is an ilogical
antecedent for which, because the table, pot the store, is what would complemem someone's living
Please help!!
room furniture.