In Manhattan Guide SC p72, experts say "Every it and its must refer to the same singular antecedent. Every they, them and their must refer to the same plural antecedent. These specific rules are respected on Sentence Correction."
But in OG13 sentence correction, the correct answer for #85 is
"According to a recent poll, owning and living in a freestanding house on its own land is still a goal of a majority of young adults, as it was of earlier generations."
Apparently, the its and it here do not share the same antecedent, the former to house and the latter to owning and living. Given that it and its refer to different antecedents in the correct answer, can I conclude that the statement by MGMAT is too strong?
Thanks, Wei