Source : Test Magic Forums.
[deleted because problem is from a banned source - see below]
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the economist's argument?
(A) Before the government started to insure depositors against bank failure, there was a lower rate of bank failure than there is now.
(B) When the government did not insure deposits, frequent bank failures occurred as a result of depositors' fears of losing money in bank failures.
(C) Surveys show that a significant proportion of depositors are aware that their deposits are insured by the government.
(D) There is an upper limit on the amount of an individual's deposit that the government will insure, but very few individuals' deposits exceed this limit.
(E) The security of a bank against failure depends on the percentage of its assets that are loaned out and also on how much risk its loans involve.
My understanding:
US gov security --> ppl are not selective --> Causing bank to fail.
X ---> Y
X: gov security, ppl non selective nature
Y: Bank's failure.
A) relating bank failure with Gov security --> strengthening the argument.
B) without security, depositor's fear --> selective nature --> causing banks failures.
C) relating security with depositors. : Irrelevant.
D) Talking about limit of money , gov will secure: Again Irrelevant
E) Bank failure --> depend on A,B.
Out of B and E: both are actually weakening the argument. I am confuse which one to choose now?