Confused! Question concerning none. Please help! :)

[Number7]

Dear all,

I have one quick question. I read two contradictory statements concerning "none" (one of the famous "SANAM"-Pronouns)

Manhattan GMAT says - as far as I understood - that it depends on the of-addition whether "none" is followed by singular or plural.

Today I read that "None of my friends IS coming" is correct. As far as I understood Manhattan "ARE" should be correct since the "of my friends" is plural...?

--> Is "none" always singluar? ("None of these magazines is cool" etc. ). Thus, is "none" an exception of the SANAM-pronouns: some, any, none, all, most?

I would really appreciate if someone could give me a short comment to the SANAM-words.

Is the following statement that I made out correct? (If I made any mistake please tell me!)

--> "Some", "any", "all" and "most": Singular or plural depends on the off-addition. Thus: All of my money IS gone; all of my friends ARE gone. Most of my time is spent on writing; most of my friends are cool....

BUT None is always singular (like every and each) --> none of my friends is cool.

Thank you very much!

[esledge]

I think this thread might answer your question. Let us know if it doesn't.

http://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/san ... -t859.html