* Difference between having had and have had

[rupali.kunmun]

Hi,

Can anyone pls tell me if both have had and having had is past perfect tense?

Please give some examples to explain their usage..

Regards,
RP

[tim]

neither is past perfect. "having had" is actually a modifier phrase and not used often on the GMAT. "have had" is present perfect. Below are examples of how each could be used in a sentence:

Having had chicken pox as a child, I will never get that disease again.

I have had chicken pox only once in my life.

[shinyms]

Pablo Picasso, the late Spanish painter, credited African art with having had a strong influence on his work.


with having had
for its having
to have had
for having
in that it had
Correct
You answered 'with having had' and that's CORRECT because:
Choice A is the best. In this sentence, where credit(ed) is used as a verb, the idiom in English is to credit something with having had some effect. Thus only choice A is idiomatic. Both for (in B and D) and to (in C) can be used idiomatically when credit is a noun, as in "Picasso gave credit to African art for having had a strong influence on his work." The verb from having had is used appropriately in choice A to indicate action that occurred prior to action expressed in the simple past tense � that is, to indicate that African art had influenced Picasso before he credited it with having done so.


This is GMAC's explanation and I get the feeling that they are indicating that "having had" is past perfect verb form. Can you help me understand this better?

[RonPurewal]

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