Federal law prohibits businesses from reimbursing any employees for the cost of owning and operating a private aircraft that is used for business purposes. Thus, many American companies themselves purchase private aircraft. The vast majority of the business aviation fleet is owned by small and mid-size businesses, and flights are strictly for business purposes, with mostly mid-level employees on board. These companies and their boards of directors are in full compliance with the law and with what is best for their businesses.
Which of the following can be most properly inferred from the statements above?
A. The Federal law in question costs businesses money.
B. Most executives would rather fly on company owned planes than on commercial airlines.
C. Large businesses usually have their executives fly first or business class on commercial flights.
D. Upper level executives are less often in compliance with the law.
E. By not receiving any reimbursement for these flights, the mid-level executives on board are complying with the law.
This question was my Q2 from CAT1. I understand why answers A-D are incorrect now, but my question is in regard to answer E (the correct answer). I get why the executives are complying with the law, but it seems like the whole statement is irrelevant and pointless to what is stated in the paragraph. Why would they receive reimbursements for flying on company aircraft when the issue in the first place had to do with employees not be able to reimbursed for owning and operating their own aircraft? Why would you even need to say that by not receiving reimbursements they are complying with the law when that was never the issue in the first place? It would even make more sense to just say that they are complying with the law, wouldn't it?
Is it common for the GMAT to provide answer choices like this that are irrelevant but true?