Art historians are using a process known as infrared scanning in analyzing the Mona Lisa to determine if it has been altered since completion and if Leonardo da Vinci first sketched the figure in black, as done by many artists of the time.
(A) if it has been altered since completion and if Leonardo da Vinci first sketched the figure in black, as done
(B) if it had been altered since completion and if Leonardo da Vinci first sketched the figure in black, a practice employed
(C) whether it has been altered since completion and whether Leonardo da Vinci first sketched the figure in black, a practice employed
(D) whether it was altered since completion and whether Leonardo da Vinci first sketched the figure in black, as was done
(E) whether it had been altered since completion and whether Leonardo da Vinci first sketched the figure in black, a practice done
[From GMAT Test 55, Q21]
I have two questions:
1. is the usage of "has been" more correct or "was" more correct in this sentence.
2. "as was done" in option D seems ok to me. Isn't "as" used to indicate the manner (used as adverb) i.e., "sketched the figure in a certain way".
OA is not D.
Contrary to the scholarly wisdom of the 1950’s and early 1960’s that predicted the processes of modernization and rationalization would gradually undermine it, ethnicity is a worldwide phenomenon of increasing importance.
(A) would gradually undermine it
(B) to be a gradual undermining of it
(C) would be a gradual undermining of ethnicity
(D) to gradually undermine ethnicity
(E) gradually undermining it
[From GMAT Test 55, Q8] [OA is A]
I have following question:
Is there a good rule to use when pronoun is used before the noun. In the above sentence "it" refers to "ethnicity". If ethnicity was repeated instead of "it", and then again followed by "ethnicity" after comma then would it be a wrong usage.