having verbed

[aflaamM589]

Hello experts,
we know that ,ving adopts the tense of the sentence.
we also know having verbed as initial modifier signifies the prior action.
In light of these statements, is there any difference among following?

Having dropped the water bucket, Robert run into the apartment
Robert run into the apartment, having dropped the water bucket
Robert, having dropped the water bucket, run into the apartment
Many thanks
Have a nice day

[RonPurewal]

if the modifier describes something that happened BEFORE the action of the main sentence, then the modifier doesn't belong AFTER the main sentence.

by contrast, consider this problem, in which "having ___" DOES belong after the main sentence:
https://www.manhattanprep.com/gmat/foru ... t4380.html
in that problem, "having ___" provides further description / explanation of what's stated in the main sentence.

[RonPurewal]

in any case, you should be posting these questions with reference to GMAT problems.

this isn't just something random that you were wondering about -- clearly, you are thinking about this because it came up in some problem -- so please provide some sort of reference to that problem. thanks.

[aflaamM589]

Revisiting the notes i have been making since start of my preparation.
I think, of all the SCs containing ,having verbed construction the link you provided is the only one where the correct answer contained this construction.

So probably this SC was the one that made me jot the point down and also there is one other post in general questions where you discussed this construction in context on ,Ving construction.

[RonPurewal]

ok. (i don't see any further questions in your post.)