In the rare cases, in which tenses don't need to match, the exact verb form missing after the helping verb should be present elsewhere in the sentence:
Wrong: Our cars were designed to inspire envy, and they ARE
Correct: Our cars were designed to inspire envy, and they DO
I have few questions as below:
1.) Meaning of the sentence:
....tenses don't need to match, the exact verb form missing after the helping verb should be present elsewhere in the sentence:
It means that if we need to change tenses then repeat the whole verb in the new tense
So why can't we say:
Our cars were designed to inspire envy, and they ARE designed to inspire envy. ("were" and "are" are different tenses )
2.)
I think i am not 100% clear with statement: "the exact verb missing after the helping verb should be present elsewhere in the sentence". Please elaborate
According to me , exact verb form means "are verb+ing or does/do/did verb+(s/ /ed) or has/have verb+(ed)"?
3.)
Right: Our cars were designed to inspire envy, and they DO
It means : Our cars were designed to inspire envy, and they DO (inspire envy)
What if , the sentence is:
Our cars were designed to be the best, and they are, right?
Be -> represents quality so ARE.
inspire-> represents action so DO
4.) What if the sentence is not passive:
He wanted to design inspiring cars and he does/did
He wanted to design inspiring cars and he does/did (design inspiring cars)
//as per the same logic in (3)[-> they DO (inspire envy)]
Please throw light on above points.
Thanks!