It has come to signify

[emanuele_antonio.pascale]

Verbal Review Pb 43.

Is there any difference between "it has come to signify and it has signify"?

I have some problem to understand why the correct answer is B.

Tx

[tim]

yes there is a difference. first, your second example is not grammatically correct, but it also doesn't show up in the answer choices. the issue is when the "signifying" action occurred, and "has come to signify" makes logical sense in a way that the alternative does not..

[emanuele_antonio.pascale]

Tim,

Thanks, typo mistake.

I meant it has signified.

I still don't understand.

Both action are on present perfect and indicate a continued actions.

Can you please elaborate more on your explanation?

Thanks

[tim]

"it has come to signify" indicates a process that began in the past and led to present significance; "it has signified" indicates that at some point in the recent past it signified but no longer does..