modifier vs prep+noun....

[hiphopdidi7623]

I cited this sentence from a thread in CR section (this thread of problem was already discussed before, so I wouldn't provide its origin)

In countries where automobile insurance includes compensation for whiplash injuries sustained in automobile accidents, reports of having suffered such injuries are twice as frequent as they are in countries where whiplash is not covered.

If we remove the word "of", would the sentence grammartically correct?
If it is correct, would the meaning change?

I cannot recongnize the differences by emitting the word "of".
Plz help, thx

[emailnaik]

If you remove 'of' in the mentioned sentence it would mean that 'reports' are suffering the injuries which is not the case. Hence removing 'of' alters the intended meaning of the sentence.

I hope this resolves your query.

[jnelson0612]

If you remove 'of' in the mentioned sentence it would mean that 'reports' are suffering the injuries which is not the case. Hence removing 'of' alters the intended meaning of the sentence.

I hope this resolves your query.

Correct, and thank you.

[hiphopdidi7623]

thank you very much

[tim]

:)