Vasanth,
In the qsn the hypothesis -> the book was produced in 1148 , is based on the premise that there was no other plague(in any other year).
how else could one correlate a mention of the plague in a letter to the production's date ?
to explain further, assume there was one more(plague) in 1164 - it is quite possible that the author's allusion was to this one and not to the 1148's and consequently the hypothesis that the book was written in 1148 falls flat
OG Explanation :
Reading the OG explantion gave a better perspective
1: The fact that there were many authors - is taken as indicative of a major disaster that must have struck at the time of producing this book
2: A letter written in the same handwriting as the 4-th copy-write mentions the 1148 plague
based on the mention in 2 , it is assumed that 1 resulted
if there had been other plagues at say 1120 1130 1140 - it is possible that each of this calamity was behind the change in authors( at various points)
so the only way the inference is supported, is by the fact that there occurred just one outbreak.
Sankar
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Addl Mention:
In the below line( i wrote before reading the OG explanation)
how else could one correlate a mention of the plague in a letter to the production's date ?
i presumed the author just mentioned a plague and not the year
also, does not the term "production" include the time when it was completed ? what if the last and final part was written in 1164 and the letter written at that time mentions the 1148 thing ? :roll: