I have a doubt on Question discussed from 28-40 mins -
Option D) A recent study indicates that the powerful effects of random reinforcement, as evidenced by the multi-million dollar collectible game industry, areno longer limited to casino patrons, test subjects, and stock market investors
In this question instructor Tommy rejected option B & E as there was no noun after modifiers. However, in option D I find the same issue - are is present instead of noun being modified. Can someone please help me understand the logic behind this?
Also on a separate note, it will will be very helpful if someone can explain/provide the link to understand how past participles act as modifiers. I want to understand whether how it works and whether it modifies only the object present before the comma
P.S I have gone through most of Ron's videos on SC, RC and CR. Thanks a lot Ron and MGMAT for all the videos! They have helped me understand intriguing concepts and hopefully I will be able to convert that in scores :)