The largest trade-book publisher in the United States has announced the creation of a new digital imprint division, under which it will publish about 20 purely digital works to be sold online as either electronic books or downloadable copies that can be printed upon purchase.
(A) works to be sold online as either electronic books or
(B) works to sell them online, either as electronic books or
(C) works and it will sell them online as either electronic books or as
(D) works, and selling them online as either electronic books or as
(E) works, and it will sell them online either as electronic books or
The OA is A. It's easy to get the answer but I'm not familiar with the "to be sold" Usage.
would B be right if I change it to
"..., under which it will publish about 20 purely digital works to sell them online as either electronic books or downloadable copies that can be printed upon purchase."
I think "to do" normally acts as a adv to modify the whole clause but "to be sold" here seems like a adj to modify the noun "digital works".
I know "to be sold" here can't modify the verb because it isn't logically correct. (publisher can not be sold online as electronic books). But I want to know, grammatically, could " to + passive construction of verb" modify the verb? like in this sentence, despite the logic problem, could "to be sold" modify the whole clause?