- (A) There are two things wrong. (1) is the word "only." We don't have any support for this being the "only" tool that should be used. (2) is that this precedent will somehow help in achieving "purely intellectual" authority. According to the passage, purely intellectual authority for the court systems don't seem all that feasible.
(B) The passage does seem to say that precedent conflicts with intellectual authority (50). However, the word I have a problem with is "invariably." This would imply that precedent - an institutional authority - is never ALSO intellectual, meaning that precedent lacks well-reasoned decisions. I find this very unsupported and very strong. However, without the word invariably, it seems like it could be correct. What do you all think?
(C) Yes! We know that precedent is "purely institutional" in nature. However, we also know that intellectual authority can step in at any point and take these "institutional" decisions and overturn them, ultimately favoring the court's "intellectual authority."
(D) It doesn't seem to prevent judges from reconsidering decisions. In fact, the passage openly says that the courts DO reconsider decisions.
(E) There is no support for saying that it "should be abandoned" and saying that it "lacks intellectual authority" goes against the author's main point that overturning precedent is a premiere example of intellectual authority!