by giladedelman Tue Jun 19, 2012 2:45 pm
Thanks for your question.
So we're dealing with a very shaky argument. Based on the fact that most cases of insomnia that psychologists treat are caused by stress, the argument concludes that doctors should never prescribe sedatives to people with insomnia; instead, people with insomnia need psychotherapy to deal with their stress.
As my italics suggest, there are a number of ways to attack this argument, which we'll see as we explore the answer choices:
(B) does describe a flaw in the argument because the argument is concluding that doctors should never prescribe sedatives on the basis that most cases of insomnia are caused by stress. But what about the cases that AREN'T caused by stress? What if sedatives would be the best treatment for those cases? The argument totally ignores this possibility.
(C) attacks the "they need psychotherapy" part of the conclusion: if psychotherapy is useless for some people, then not all insomniacs need it, and maybe sedatives would be a better treatment.
(D) addresses yet another assumption in the argument: if sedatives can help reduce stress, then maybe they should be prescribed and insomniacs don't require psychotherapy.
(E) describes another flaw by pointing out that the argument makes a general conclusion about all insomnia cases based solely on those cases that are treated by psychologists. But what if the cases that psychologists treat are not representative--what if, for example, they are way more likely to be caused by stress than other cases?
That leaves (A), which is correct because it is not a flaw in the argument. The argument doesn't assume that insomnia makes it harder to cope with stress. In fact, this is the opposite of the causal relationship in the argument: it's saying that stress causes insomnia.
Does that clear this one up for you?