I am completely lost on this question...
I don't see why (D) is the answer for both authors.
Please help!
rinagoldfield Wrote:The author of Passage A interprets this phenomenon negatively. He argues that our desire for increasing levels of luxury means that we "overinvest in acquiring [material possessions] at the expense of leisure" (line s 22-24). This is bad. .
maria487 Wrote:rinagoldfield Wrote:The author of Passage A interprets this phenomenon negatively. He argues that our desire for increasing levels of luxury means that we "overinvest in acquiring [material possessions] at the expense of leisure" (line s 22-24). This is bad. .
I'm having trouble seeing that author A expresses any opinion on the matter. Upon reading passage A, it seems completely factual to me and, in fact, it still does. Paragraph 3 uses words/phrases that could be interpreted to have a negative connotation, or they could just be stating the facts. "Overinvesting" is not inherently bad.
Are there other reference points in the passage which suggest that the author feels that people who want to make more money are "misguided"? I feel like this is all based on one sentence (lines 21-23) which does not necessarily indicate that the author feels they are misguided.
Thank you!
ohthatpatrick Wrote:I agree with you, that the first half of (D) is far from lovable.
But it IS inherently negative to say over-investing. That prefix indicates an excessive degree, a failure to accurately gauge how much to invest.
And while most of the passage does sound neutral, lines 20-23 sound more opinionated, in part because they take on the 1st person voice.
Structuring a sentence as
"We do not foresee ______ , so we do _______ to an excessive degree"
is good enough for 'misguided'.
Sometimes you have to just plug your nose and pick the best choice, even if you don't think it's up to the 'usual' standards of LSAT support.