Still confused with this question...
Actually I chose B for this one correctly and
I understand how both the congress and president should be involved in the decision making now, but why/how does it know it's applicable
only in "the absence of a declaration of war"?
I thought this phrase means when congress could not be involved in the decision making and the resolution prescribe what the president should do in that case...so not sure why the declaration is applicable in only that case...isn't it applicable in usual time?? (Defined both of them should be involved, so the president should consult with the congress now...etc)
Also regarding to the lines the previous poster provided, it's not related to the resolution, but about the constitution (I think) so not sure how those lines related to the part asked too...
(though I understand the author argues that the congress should be involved...)
Thank you.